Kerala PSC Staff Nurse Gr II Mock 014
100Q full-length mock for Kerala PSC Staff Nurse Grade II (Health Services). Covers all 10 modules — anatomy & physiology, microbiology, pharmacology, fundamentals + medical-surgical + maternal + paediatric + community + mental health nursing, plus nursing management & current health affairs.
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Kerala PSC Staff Nurse Gr II Mock 014
80 questions · 90 minutes
Q1.A 45-year-old male patient presents with fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath. On examination, his conjunctivae are pale, and his pulse is 108/min. His hemoglobin level is found to be 8.5 g/dL. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of his symptoms?
Q2.During a physical examination, a nurse auscultates a loud 'lub-dub' sound over the apex of the heart that radiates to the axilla. Which of the following valves is MOST likely affected?
Q3.A patient with chronic kidney disease develops fluid overload and is prescribed furosemide. Which of the following electrolytes is MOST likely to be depleted due to the administration of this drug?
Q4.A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected hypothyroidism. Which of the following clinical manifestations is MOST likely to be present?
Q5.A 30-year-old female presents with complaints of irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, and acne. On examination, she is found to have central obesity. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely responsible for her symptoms?
Q6.A patient with a history of hypertension presents with sudden onset of severe headache, nausea, and blurred vision. On examination, his blood pressure is 220/130 mmHg. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate immediate intervention?
Q7.A nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis who develops hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following lab values is MOST likely to be elevated in this condition?
Q8.A 28-year-old patient presents with high fever, cough producing rusty sputum, and chest pain. Gram staining of sputum shows Gram-positive diplococci. Which organism is most likely responsible for this infection?
Q9.A nurse collects a throat swab from a child with suspected diphtheria. Which transport medium should be used to preserve the viability of Corynebacterium diphtheriae during transit to the laboratory?
Q10.Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of bacterial resistance to antibiotics?
Q11.A patient with tuberculosis is started on anti-tubercular therapy. Which specimen is most appropriate for monitoring the patient's response to treatment?
Q12.Which of the following infections is primarily transmitted through the fecal-oral route?
Q13.A nurse is collecting a wound swab from a patient with a diabetic foot ulcer. Which step is most important to ensure the sample's validity for culture?
Q14.Which component of the body's innate immunity provides the first line of defense against bacterial entry through skin abrasions?
Q15.Which of the following is the MOST appropriate example of a secondary group in the context of community health nursing?
Q16.A nurse observes that in a certain tribal community, the prevalence of anemia is significantly higher among women of reproductive age compared to other demographic groups. Which social factor is MOST likely contributing to this health disparity?
Q17.Which of the following social changes is MOST likely to reduce the incidence of waterborne diseases in a rural community?
Q18.A staff nurse in a primary health center notices that adolescent girls in the community are dropping out of school due to early marriage. Which social problem does this scenario BEST illustrate?
Q19.Which of the following is the BEST example of a community health nurse's role in addressing social problems like dowry and domestic violence?
Q20.In a Kerala village, the local self-government (Gram Panchayat) has decided to implement a community health program focusing on elderly care. Which social group is MOST likely to benefit from this initiative?
Q21.Which of the following defense mechanisms involves attributing one's own unacceptable thoughts or feelings to another person?
Q22.A patient with a chronic illness refuses to acknowledge the severity of their condition despite clear medical evidence. Which psychological defense mechanism is most likely being used?
Q23.A nursing student consistently studies at the same time every evening and finds it difficult to concentrate if the schedule is disrupted. This behavior demonstrates which of the following psychological concepts?
Q24.A patient with anxiety disorder is prescribed cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which of the following best explains how CBT helps the patient?
Q25.A nurse observes that a patient with depression often makes self-deprecating remarks and expresses feelings of worthlessness. Which psychological concept best describes the patient's behavior?
Q26.A patient who recently lost a job shows a sudden increase in interest in learning new skills and setting career goals. Which theory of motivation best explains this behavior?
Q27.Which of the following is the primary function of dietary fiber in a balanced diet?
Q28.A patient with hypertension is advised to follow a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet. Which nutrient should be significantly reduced in this diet?
Q29.Which of the following is a key characteristic of a therapeutic diet for a patient with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?
Q30.A nurse is educating a patient about the importance of iron in the diet. Which of the following is the best dietary source of heme iron?
Q31.A patient recovering from surgery is prescribed a high-protein diet. Which of the following nutrients should be increased in conjunction with protein to support tissue repair?
Q32.Which of the following is a primary function of Vitamin K in the body?
Q33.A patient diagnosed with Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus presents with elevated blood glucose levels. Which biochemical process is primarily responsible for the conversion of excess glucose into glycogen in the liver?
Q34.During a patient's routine blood investigation, the nurse notices an elevated serum creatinine level. Which organ's function is most likely compromised in this scenario?
Q35.A nurse is administering insulin to a diabetic patient. Which type of insulin is typically used for rapid correction of hyperglycemia due to its quick onset of action?
Q36.A patient with a history of alcohol abuse presents with symptoms of confusion, nystagmus, and ataxia. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely contributing to these symptoms?
Q37.A nurse is educating a patient about the importance of cholesterol in the body. Which lipoprotein is primarily responsible for transporting cholesterol from peripheral tissues back to the liver for excretion?
Q38.A patient with severe burns is at risk of developing hyperkalemia. Which biochemical process is primarily responsible for the movement of potassium ions out of cells into the bloodstream in this condition?
Q39.A 55-year-old male patient with hypertension is prescribed metoprolol for blood pressure control. Which of the following adverse effects is most commonly associated with this drug?
Q40.During the administration of intramuscular penicillin to a pediatric patient, the nurse notes a rapid onset of urticaria, wheezing, and hypotension. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
Q41.A patient is ordered 750 mg of amoxicillin. The available tablets are 250 mg each. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
Q42.Which of the following drug classes is contraindicated in a patient with a history of asthma?
Q43.A nurse is preparing to administer 2.5 mL of a medication using a 5-mL syringe calibrated in 0.5 mL increments. Where should the nurse align the syringe's plunger to ensure accurate dosing?
Q44.A patient receiving chemotherapy develops severe nausea and vomiting. The nurse anticipates administering which class of antiemetic drugs to manage these symptoms?
Q45.Which of the following is the FIRST step in the nursing process according to the ADPIE framework?
Q46.A patient with a confirmed diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis is admitted for treatment. Which of the following infection control measures is MOST critical to prevent airborne transmission?
Q47.During bed bath administration, the nurse observes a patient's skin to be dry and flaky. Which nursing intervention is MOST appropriate to address this finding?
Q48.A nurse is preparing to administer intramuscular injection to a patient. Which of the following sites is CONTRAINDICATED for an IM injection?
Q49.A patient with a Foley catheter develops a urinary tract infection. Which of the following measures is MOST effective in preventing catheter-associated infections?
Q50.While assisting a post-operative patient with ambulation, the nurse notices the patient's wound dressing is saturated with bright red blood. What is the IMMEDIATE nursing action?
Q51.A 65-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents with sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, and nausea. What is the FIRST priority nursing action?
Q52.A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) develops increasing dyspnea, productive cough with yellow sputum, and low-grade fever. Arterial blood gas (ABG) shows pH 7.32, PaCO2 55 mmHg, PaO2 58 mmHg, HCO3- 28 mEq/L. What is the most likely acid-base disturbance?
Q53.A 45-year-old female on chemotherapy for breast cancer presents with oliguria, peripheral edema, and hypertension. Serum creatinine is 2.5 mg/dL (elevated), and urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to develop?
Q54.A patient with cirrhosis and ascites develops sudden confusion, asterixis, and fetor hepaticus. Serum ammonia level is elevated. Which dietary modification is MOST appropriate?
Q55.A 30-year-old male sustains second-degree burns to 30% of his total body surface area (TBSA). In the first 24 hours, which fluid resuscitation formula is most appropriate?
Q56.A patient with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) develops bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
Q57.A 3-year-old child presents with a fever, cough, and difficulty breathing. On assessment, you notice subcostal retractions and wheezing. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate nursing intervention?
Q58.Which of the following is a key component of the Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illnesses (IMNCI) strategy for children under 5 years?
Q59.A 6-month-old infant is brought to the clinic with a history of fever, irritability, and poor feeding. On examination, you notice a bulging fontanelle. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q60.Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a child with croup?
Q61.A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following dietary recommendations is most appropriate?
Q62.Which of the following is a critical assessment finding in a child with suspected dehydration due to diarrhea?
Q63.Which of the following is a key function of a Primary Health Centre (PHC) in the context of Community Health Nursing?
Q64.Under the National Health Mission (NHM), which programme focuses on reducing maternal and child mortality?
Q65.A sub-centre is responsible for providing healthcare services to a population of up to how many individuals?
Q66.Which national health programme primarily focuses on the control and prevention of communicable diseases?
Q67.In the context of Community Health Nursing, what is the primary role of an Auxiliary Nurse Midwife (ANM) at a sub-centre?
Q68.Which of the following is a core component of the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) under the NHM?
Q69.A patient with schizophrenia exhibits disorganized speech and behavior. Which of the following communication techniques would be most effective in engaging this patient?
Q70.A patient with major depressive disorder refuses to take their antidepressant medication, stating, 'It won’t work anyway.' Which therapeutic response would be most appropriate?
Q71.A patient with generalized anxiety disorder is experiencing a panic attack. Which nursing intervention should be prioritized?
Q72.A patient with bipolar disorder is in the manic phase and is exhibiting rapid speech and impulsivity. Which communication strategy would be least effective?
Q73.A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is resistant to exposure and response prevention therapy. Which approach would be most helpful in gaining their cooperation?
Q74.A patient with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) becomes agitated when reminded of a traumatic event. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
Q75.A nursing unit is implementing a new protocol for patient handover. Which of the following strategies would best ensure effective communication during shift changes?
Q76.A staff nurse is tasked with developing an in-service education program on infection control. Which of the following topics should be prioritized to address the most common breaches in protocol?
Q77.A nurse manager is reviewing the staffing pattern for a medical ward. Which of the following methods would best ensure that staffing levels are adequate to meet patient needs?
Q78.A research study is being conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new pain management protocol. Which of the following methods would best ensure the validity of the study results?
Q79.A nurse educator is designing a training program for new nurses on medication administration. Which of the following teaching strategies would be most effective for ensuring competency?
Q80.A nursing unit is experiencing high turnover rates. Which of the following interventions would most likely improve staff retention?
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