LDC Mixed Practice Test #820

Question 1

Poverty is a significant social problem with profound implications for community health. How does poverty primarily contribute to poor health outcomes in a community?

Accepted Answer

B. By limiting access to quality healthcare, nutritious food, and safe living conditions. — Poverty directly contributes to poor health outcomes by severely limiting individuals' and families' access to essential resources such as quality healthcare services, nutritious food, safe housing, and clean water and sanitation facilities. This often leads to higher rates of infectious diseases, malnutrition, and chronic conditions. Options A, C, and D describe scenarios that are generally antithetical to the realities of poverty or incorrect assumptions about its impact.

Answer

A. By increasing access to diverse nutritional food sources and clean water.

Answer

C. By fostering strong community bonds that negate the need for formal healthcare.

Answer

D. By promoting higher educational attainment, leading to better health literacy.

Question 2

NITI Aayog's formation marked a paradigm shift from the Planning Commission's centralized approach. Which of the following statements accurately reflects NITI Aayog's structure and its core mandate?

Accepted Answer

B. Its Governing Council, chaired by the Prime Minister, includes Chief Ministers of all States and Lt. Governors of UTs with Legislatures, emphasizing cooperative federalism. — NITI Aayog is an extra-constitutional body, not statutory, and does not have powers to allocate funds; the Finance Commission handles resource allocation. Its Governing Council, chaired by the Prime Minister, includes Chief Ministers of all States and Lt. Governors of UTs with Legislatures, promoting cooperative federalism. It does not formulate five-year plans, nor does it issue binding directives, but rather provides strategic and technical advice.

Answer

A. It is a statutory body with powers to approve state budgets and allocate financial resources for centrally sponsored schemes.

Answer

C. It directly formulates and implements five-year plans, succeeding the Planning Commission in this specific role.

Answer

D. It primarily focuses on short-term economic reforms and provides binding directives to state governments on policy implementation.

Question 3

The integration of princely states into the Indian Union was a complex process in post-independence India. In the context of the Travancore-Cochin merger, which of the following best describes the primary political impetus for their unification?

Accepted Answer

C. The culmination of popular agitation for responsible government within both states, coupled with the Indian Union's firm policy on princely state integration. — The primary impetus for the Travancore-Cochin merger was the strong demand for responsible government from popular movements like the State Congress in both states, coupled with the Indian Union's resolute policy of integrating princely states into the national framework. Options A, B, and D represent less significant or inaccurate motivations; the British administration did not directly order such mergers post-independence, and economic competition or military alliances were not the driving forces for this specific unification.

Answer

A. To create a stronger economic bloc to compete with neighboring Madras Presidency.

Answer

B. The direct order from the departing British colonial administration to form larger administrative units.

Answer

D. The strategic military alliance formed between Travancore and Cochin to counter potential external threats.

Question 4

The authority to issue 'writs' for enforcement of Fundamental Rights rests with:‌​‍

Accepted Answer

The Supreme Court and High Courts — SC under Article 32 and HCs under Article 226.‌​‍

Answer

The President

Answer

The Parliament

Answer

The CBI

Question 5

Human gestation period:

Accepted Answer

280 days (~40 weeks) — From last menstrual period (LMP). Embryo → fetus at 8 weeks. Parturition involves oxytocin surge.

Answer

200 days

Answer

365 days

Answer

100 days

Question 6

Under the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009, what is the primary age group for which free and compulsory education is guaranteed?

Accepted Answer

B. 6 to 14 years — The RTE Act, 2009, mandates free and compulsory education for all children between the ages of 6 and 14 years. This provision ensures that every child in this age group has the right to elementary education, covering classes I to VIII.

Answer

A. 3 to 14 years

Answer

C. 5 to 18 years

Answer

D. 6 to 18 years

Question 7

The first Chief Election Commissioner of India was:

Accepted Answer

Sukumar Sen — Sukumar Sen (1950-58) — conducted India's first two general elections.

Answer

T.N. Seshan

Answer

K.V.K. Sundaram

Answer

S.P. Sen Verma

Question 8

Which article of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability?‌​‍

Accepted Answer

Article 17 — Article 17 abolishes untouchability in all forms and makes its practice a punishable offence.‌​‍

Answer

Article 14

Answer

Article 18

Answer

Article 15

Question 9

Which Indian state was the first to establish a full-fledged university for women in 1916?

Accepted Answer

D. West Bengal — The first full-fledged women's university in India was the SNDT Women's University, established in 1916 in Bombay (now Mumbai), Maharashtra. Tamil Nadu and Kerala had women's colleges earlier, but not full universities. West Bengal's Bethune College (1879) was the first women's college, not a full university.

Answer

A. Tamil Nadu

Answer

B. Kerala

Answer

C. Maharashtra

Question 10

The smallest state (country) in the world is:‌​‍

Accepted Answer

Vatican City — Vatican City (0.49 km²) is the world's smallest sovereign state.‌​‍

Answer

Cuba

Answer

Russia

Answer

Sri Lanka

LDC Mixed Practice Test #820