Kerala PSC KAS Prelim Deep Mock 006

Question 1

Which among the following is NOT a Directive Principle of State Policy under Part IV of the Indian Constitution?

Accepted Answer

D. To ensure equal pay for equal work for both men and women — Option D is incorrect because the principle of 'equal pay for equal work' for men and women is a Fundamental Right under Article 39(d), not a Directive Principle. The Directive Principles related to education (Option C) were originally in Article 45 but have been incorporated into the Fundamental Rights through the 86th Amendment (2002). Options A and B are explicitly mentioned in Articles 51 and 44, respectively.

Answer

A. To promote international peace and security

Answer

B. To secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India

Answer

C. To provide free and compulsory education to all children below the age of 14 years

Question 2

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution declares India to be a 'Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic'. Which of the following best explains the significance of the term 'Sovereign' in this context?

Accepted Answer

A. It implies that India is free from external control or interference in its internal and external affairs, including the power to determine its own form of government and policies — Option A correctly defines 'Sovereign' as independence from external control in both internal and external affairs, a core feature of India's constitutional framework. Option B is incorrect because the Constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly, not the central government alone. Option C is wrong as federalism (shared powers between central and state governments) is a key feature of the Constitution. Option D is incorrect because sovereignty does not imply exemption from international law, though India remains free to engage with or reject specific treaties.

Answer

B. It signifies that India has the supreme authority to frame its own Constitution without any external influence

Answer

C. It indicates that all powers of governance are vested solely in the hands of the central government, with no role for state governments

Answer

D. It means that India is not bound by any international law or treaty unless it chooses to adhere to them

Question 3

Which of the following financial powers is exclusively vested in the Lok Sabha under the Constitution of India?

Accepted Answer

C. To initiate the money bill and control the purse strings of the government — The Lok Sabha has exclusive power to initiate money bills (Article 109) and control the purse strings, while the Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations. Option B is incorrect as money withdrawal beyond the Constitution’s limit requires a special majority in both houses. Option D is incorrect because the Rajya Sabha can also recommend taxes in certain cases.

Answer

A. To decide the final estimates of revenue and expenditure presented by the government

Answer

B. To approve the withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund of India beyond the amount specified in the Constitution

Answer

D. To recommend the imposition of a tax or cess for a specific purpose

Question 4

Under the Parliament’s legislative procedure, which of the following statements correctly describes the role of the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) when examining a Bill?

Accepted Answer

B. A JPC examines the Bill clause-by-clause and submits a report to the House, but cannot alter the Bill itself — A JPC reviews the Bill and submits a report with observations, but it cannot amend or reject the Bill directly (Option B). JPCs do not introduce new Bills (Option D) or have the power to reject Bills (Option C). Their role is advisory, and amendments are considered by the House based on their report.

Answer

A. A JPC can amend the Bill directly and present its recommendations to the Parliament for approval

Answer

C. A JPC can reject the Bill entirely if it finds the provisions unconstitutional or against public interest

Answer

D. A JPC is empowered to introduce a completely new Bill in place of the original one if it deems necessary

Question 5

Which of the following statements best describes the doctrine of judicial review as practiced by the Supreme Court of India?

Accepted Answer

B. Judicial review empowers the Supreme Court to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions, ensuring they align with the Constitution. — The correct answer is B. Judicial review in India, as practiced by the Supreme Court, involves examining the constitutionality of laws and executive actions to ensure they comply with the Constitution, not merely their morality. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because judicial review does not hinge on morality, cannot override High Courts unconstrained, and applies to both central and state laws.

Answer

A. The Supreme Court can strike down any law passed by the Parliament solely on the grounds of it being immoral.

Answer

C. The Supreme Court can review and alter the decisions of state High Courts without any constitutional constraints.

Answer

D. Judicial review is applicable only to state laws and not to central laws enacted by the Parliament.

Question 6

Under which constitutional provision does the High Court exercise its power of judicial review over administrative actions?

Accepted Answer

B. Article 226 of the Constitution — The correct answer is B. Article 226 of the Constitution empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for other purposes, including judicial review of administrative actions. Option A (Article 32) pertains to the Supreme Court's power, C (Article 143) deals with advisory jurisdiction, and D (Article 136) is about special leave to appeal, making them incorrect.

Answer

A. Article 32 of the Constitution

Answer

C. Article 143 of the Constitution

Answer

D. Article 136 of the Constitution

Question 7

Which among the following is a Constitutional provision regarding the Prime Minister of India?

Accepted Answer

A. The Prime Minister must be a member of either House of Parliament at the time of appointment. — The Prime Minister must be a member of either House of Parliament at the time of appointment, as per Article 75(5) of the Constitution. Option B is incorrect because the President appoints the PM based on majority support in the Lok Sabha, not after consulting the CJI. Option C is incorrect as there is no constitutional limit on the number of terms a PM can serve. Option D is incorrect because the PM is not directly elected by the people.

Answer

B. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Answer

C. The Prime Minister can hold office for a maximum of two terms of five years each.

Answer

D. The Prime Minister is directly elected by the people of India in a general election.

Question 8

Consider the following statements about the Council of Ministers in India:
1. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The President can dismiss a Minister if the Prime Minister advises so.
3. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha alone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

C. 3 only — Only statement 3 is correct. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha alone, not Parliament (statement 1 is incorrect). The President cannot dismiss a Minister unilaterally; it is the PM's prerogative to advise the President to do so (statement 2 is incorrect).

Answer

A. 1 and 2 only

Answer

B. 2 and 3 only

Answer

D. 1, 2, and 3

Question 9

Under which constitutional provision does the Parliament have the power to legislate on a matter in the State List for the purpose of implementing an international treaty or agreement?

Accepted Answer

D. Article 253 (Legislation for giving effect to international agreements) — Article 253 empowers Parliament to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country or countries. Article 249 is for national interest but not specifically for treaties, while Article 250 is for emergency situations. Article 252 requires state consent, making it irrelevant for unilateral treaty implementation.

Answer

A. Article 249 (Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest)

Answer

B. Article 250 (Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List if a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation)

Answer

C. Article 252 (Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more States by consent)

Question 10

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, which plays a key role in Centre-State fiscal relations?

Accepted Answer

D. States have no voting rights in the GST Council; decisions are purely based on the Union Government's discretion — The GST Council operates under Article 279A, with the Union Finance Minister as Chairperson and equal representation of states. Decisions are taken by a majority of 3/4th of the weighted votes, where the Centre has 1/3rd weightage and states collectively have 2/3rd. States do have voting rights, making option D incorrect.

Answer

A. It is a constitutional body under Article 279A

Answer

B. The Union Finance Minister is the Chairperson of the GST Council

Answer

C. The decisions of the GST Council require a three-fourths majority of the weighted votes of the members present and voting

Question 11

Which of the following statements about the Election Commission of India is NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

D. The Election Commission has the power to disqualify candidates for electoral malpractices under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. — The Election Commission does not have the power to disqualify candidates directly under the Representation of the People Act, 1951; this power lies with the President or Governor as the case may be, based on the advice of the Election Commission. The other statements are correct.

Answer

A. The Election Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 324 of the Constitution.

Answer

B. The Election Commission consists of a Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners.

Answer

C. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through impeachment by Parliament.

Question 12

Consider the following statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India: (1) The CAG audits all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, State Funds, and Union Territories. (2) The CAG’s reports are examined by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament. (3) The CAG can audit the accounts of any private entity receiving government funds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Accepted Answer

A. 1 and 2 only — Statements (1) and (2) are correct as the CAG audits all expenditures from the Consolidated Fund and its reports are examined by the Public Accounts Committee. Statement (3) is incorrect because the CAG can audit accounts of private entities only if they are substantially funded by the government, not all such entities.

Answer

B. 2 and 3 only

Answer

C. 1 and 3 only

Answer

D. 1, 2 and 3

Question 13

Which constitutional amendment introduced the Anti-Defection Law in the Indian Constitution?

Accepted Answer

B. 52nd Amendment Act — The 52nd Amendment Act, 1985, added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, which laid down the provisions for disqualification of members on grounds of defection. The 42nd Amendment Act primarily dealt with fundamental duties and the 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts focused on Panchayati Raj institutions and urban local bodies, respectively.

Answer

A. 42nd Amendment Act

Answer

C. 73rd Amendment Act

Answer

D. 74th Amendment Act

Question 14

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was amended by which of the following amendments to include the words 'Socialist' and 'Secular'?

Accepted Answer

B. 42nd Amendment Act — The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, introduced the words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' in the Preamble, reflecting the ideals of social justice and religious neutrality. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, restored the original position of the Preamble and the other amendments listed did not alter the Preamble's text.

Answer

A. 44th Amendment Act

Answer

C. 45th Amendment Act

Answer

D. 49th Amendment Act

Question 15

Which of the following administrative divisions of the Mauryan Empire was responsible for the collection of taxes and maintenance of law and order in rural areas?

Accepted Answer

B. Rajuka — The Rajuka was the administrative officer in the Mauryan Empire who managed rural areas, collecting taxes and ensuring law and order. Pradeshika (A) were regional governors, Yukta (C) were subordinate officers, and Amatyas (D) were general administrative officials, but not specifically rural tax collectors.

Answer

A. Pradeshika

Answer

C. Yukta

Answer

D. Amatyas

Question 16

The Gupta Empire is often referred to as the 'Golden Age' of ancient India. Which of the following achievements is NOT attributed to this period?

Accepted Answer

C. The construction of the Great Wall of India — The decimal system and the concept of zero were developed during the Gupta period, while the Great Wall of India (C) is associated with China. The Gupta Empire saw significant advancements in literature (A) and trade prosperity (D), making them incorrect options.

Answer

A. Advancements in Sanskrit literature and poetry

Answer

B. The development of the decimal system and concept of zero

Answer

D. Flourishing trade and economic prosperity

Question 17

Ashoka’s edicts provide significant insights into his governance and policies. Which of the following statements about Ashoka’s edicts is correct?

Accepted Answer

C. They emphasized non-violence, religious tolerance, and ethical governance — Ashoka’s edicts emphasized non-violence, religious tolerance, and ethical governance (C), reflecting his conversion to Buddhism. They were inscribed on pillars, rocks, and walls (A is incorrect), and while they were mostly in Prakrit, some were in Sanskrit (D is incorrect). The edicts did not focus on military conquests (B is incorrect).

Answer

A. They were inscribed only on stone pillars and not on rocks or walls of buildings

Answer

B. They primarily focused on military conquests and strategies

Answer

D. They were written exclusively in Prakrit and not in Sanskrit

Question 18

Which Mughal Emperor introduced the religious policy known as 'Din-i-Ilahi' and abolished the jizya tax on non-Muslims during his reign?

Accepted Answer

A. Akbar — Akbar introduced 'Din-i-Ilahi' in 1582 as a syncretic religion to foster harmony among his subjects, though it was not widely adopted. He also temporarily abolished the jizya tax, a policy later reinstated by Aurangzeb, making him the correct choice. The other options ruled out due to their different religious policies.

Answer

B. Jahangir

Answer

C. Shah Jahan

Answer

D. Aurangzeb

Question 19

The Battle of Talikota (1565) marked a decisive turning point in the history of South India by leading to the decline of which powerful medieval kingdom?

Accepted Answer

A. Vijayanagara Empire — The Vijayanagara Empire suffered a crushing defeat at Talikota, severely weakening its power and leading to its eventual collapse. The Bahmani Sultanate had already fragmented into smaller kingdoms by then, while the Hoysala and Kakatiya dynasties had declined much earlier.

Answer

B. Bahmani Sultanate

Answer

C. Hoysala Dynasty

Answer

D. Kakatiya Dynasty

Question 20

Which Sultanate ruler is credited with the construction of the Qutub Minar, the world's tallest brick minaret, in Delhi?

Accepted Answer

A. Qutb-ud-din Aibak — Qutb-ud-din Aibak initiated the construction of the Qutub Minar in 1192, though it was completed by his successor Iltutmish. Alauddin Khilji and Muhammad bin Tughlaq ruled much later and are not associated with its construction.

Answer

B. Iltutmish

Answer

C. Alauddin Khilji

Answer

D. Muhammad bin Tughlaq

Question 21

Which event marked the beginning of the organized freedom struggle in India after the Revolt of 1857?

Accepted Answer

A. Formation of the Indian National Congress in 1885 — The Indian National Congress was formed in 1885, which marked the beginning of organized political agitation against British rule. Though the Revolt of 1857 was a major uprising, it was not organized by a political party. The Partition of Bengal, Non-Cooperation Movement, and Civil Disobedience Movement occurred later, representing different phases of the freedom struggle.

Answer

B. Partition of Bengal in 1905

Answer

C. Non-Cooperation Movement launched in 1920

Answer

D. Civil Disobedience Movement initiated in 1930

Question 22

The 'Drain of Wealth' theory was primarily advocated by which Indian leader during the colonial period?

Accepted Answer

A. Dadabhai Naoroji — Dadabhai Naoroji, in his work 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India,' extensively explained the 'Drain of Wealth' theory, highlighting how India's resources were being exploited by the British. While Tilak, Lajpat Rai, and Gokhale were prominent leaders, Naoroji was the primary advocate of this economic critique of colonialism.

Answer

B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer

C. Lala Lajpat Rai

Answer

D. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Question 23

Which of the following was a key feature of the 'Garibi Hatao' slogan during the 1971 Indian general elections, and how did it influence post-independence economic policies?

Accepted Answer

B. It focused on rural employment generation through schemes like the Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) to address poverty directly. — The 'Garibi Hatao' (Remove Poverty) slogan was central to Indira Gandhi's 1971 election campaign and led to the introduction of poverty alleviation programmes like the IRDP, which aimed to provide sustainable livelihood opportunities in rural areas. Option A is incorrect as only selective nationalizations (e.g., banks in 1969) occurred, not a complete shift. Option C misrepresents the focus on rural employment over urban industrialization. Option D refers to an earlier policy (post-independence land reforms) unrelated to the 1971 election.

Answer

A. It advocated for a complete shift to socialist planning, leading to the nationalization of major industries like banking and coal.

Answer

C. It promoted large-scale industrialization in urban areas to reduce rural-urban migration and boost GDP growth.

Answer

D. It called for the abolition of the zamindari system and land redistribution to ensure equitable land ownership.

Question 24

The 'Green Revolution' in India primarily aimed to address which critical challenge of post-independence agriculture, and what was its unintended consequence?

Accepted Answer

A. To increase food grain production by introducing high-yielding varieties and modern farming techniques, but it led to increased regional disparities in agricultural development. — The Green Revolution successfully boosted food grain production using high-yielding varieties and modern techniques, but it exacerbated regional disparities as benefits were concentrated in Punjab, Haryana, and UP. Option B is incorrect because while irrigation did increase, water depletion is a separate issue linked to policies like free electricity for farmers. Option C is unrelated to the Green Revolution's primary focus. Option D misrepresents the goal, as mechanization was not the core strategy.

Answer

B. To reduce dependency on monsoon rains by promoting irrigation projects, but it caused significant water table depletion in over-exploited regions.

Answer

C. To improve livestock productivity through cross-breeding, but it resulted in the loss of indigenous cattle breeds.

Answer

D. To mechanize farming to reduce labor costs, but it led to a decline in rural employment opportunities.

Question 25

Which socio-religious reform movement in Kerala, founded by Sree Narayana Guru, primarily aimed at eradicating caste discrimination and promoting social equality?

Accepted Answer

B. SNDP Yogam — The SNDP Yogam (Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam), founded by Sree Narayana Guru, was a movement in Kerala dedicated to uplifting the Ezhava community and challenging caste-based oppression through education, temple reforms, and social equality. While Arya Samaj (founded by Dayananda Saraswati) addressed caste issues in North India, and Prarthana Samaj (founded by Mahadev Govind Ranade) was a reform movement in Maharashtra, neither was centered in Kerala. The Theosophical Society, founded by Helena Blavatsky, focused on spiritualism and not primarily on caste discrimination.

Answer

A. Arya Samaj

Answer

C. Prarthana Samaj

Answer

D. Theosophical Society

Kerala PSC KAS Prelim Deep Mock 006