Kerala PSC KAS Prelim Deep Mock 005

Question 1

The inclusion of provisions for 'Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid' (Article 39A) in the Constitution of India primarily reflects the state's commitment to achieving which of the following?

Accepted Answer

C. Implementing a Directive Principle of State Policy to secure social and economic justice. — Article 39A is explicitly categorized under Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV). Its primary purpose is to secure social and economic justice by ensuring that no citizen is denied justice merely due to economic or other disabilities. While it indirectly supports the ideals of the Preamble, its direct classification and intent fall under DPSP, and it is not directly related to freedom of speech or citizen's fundamental duties.

Answer

A. Enhancing the Fundamental Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression.

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B. Fulfilling the ideals of liberty and equality enshrined in the Preamble.

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D. Strengthening the Fundamental Duties of citizens to uphold the Constitution.

Question 2

A concerned citizen regularly volunteers for cleanliness drives in public places and actively advocates for the protection of wildlife and forest areas. These actions of the citizen are most directly encouraged by which part of the Indian Constitution?

Accepted Answer

D. Fundamental Duties, specifically those related to protecting and improving the natural environment. — Article 51A (g) of the Fundamental Duties specifically states that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India 'to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.' While other parts of the Constitution set ideals or rights, Fundamental Duties directly encourage such active citizen participation and responsibility. The Preamble sets ideals, Fundamental Rights are entitlements, and DPSPs are directives for the state, not citizens.

Answer

A. The Preamble, which declares India as a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic.

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B. Fundamental Rights, particularly the freedom of speech and expression.

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C. Directive Principles of State Policy, which guide the state in governance.

Question 3

A Bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha and, upon its passage, is certified by the Speaker as a 'Money Bill'. It is then transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its consideration. Which of the following statements accurately describes the procedural powers of the Rajya Sabha concerning this particular Bill?

Accepted Answer

B. The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on the Money Bill, which the Lok Sabha is free to accept or reject. If the Bill is not returned within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses. — Article 109 of the Constitution specifically outlines the procedure for Money Bills. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend a Money Bill; it can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept. If the Rajya Sabha does not return the Bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form it was passed by the Lok Sabha. There is no provision for a joint sitting for Money Bills.

Answer

A. The Rajya Sabha possesses the power to amend or reject the Money Bill, but must return it to the Lok Sabha within a period of 14 days.

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C. The Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bill for a maximum period of six months, after which a joint sitting may be called to resolve the deadlock.

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D. The Rajya Sabha has no power whatsoever over a Money Bill and must simply return it to the Lok Sabha, without any discussion or recommendations.

Question 4

A Member of Parliament intends to move a motion to express strong disapproval of the policies of a specific Ministry within the Union Government, without necessarily seeking the resignation of the entire Council of Ministers. Which of the following parliamentary devices would be most appropriate for this purpose?

Accepted Answer

C. Censure Motion — A Censure Motion is moved to express strong disapproval of the policies or actions of a particular Minister or a group of Ministers, or a specific policy of the government. If passed, it implies severe disapproval but does not automatically lead to the resignation of the Council of Ministers. A No-Confidence Motion, in contrast, targets the entire Council of Ministers and, if passed, compels the government to resign.

Answer

A. Adjournment Motion

Answer

B. No-Confidence Motion

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D. Calling Attention Motion

Question 5

In the context of the Indian Constitution, the power of judicial review has evolved significantly, particularly concerning constitutional amendments. Following the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), which of the following statements accurately describes the primary limitation imposed on the Parliament's power to amend the Constitution, subject to judicial scrutiny?

Accepted Answer

A. Parliament cannot amend any provision of the Constitution that forms part of its 'basic structure', as determined by the judiciary. — The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) established the 'Basic Structure Doctrine', holding that while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution, it cannot alter its fundamental features or the 'basic structure'. This doctrine acts as a significant limitation on Parliament's amending power and forms a crucial ground for judicial review of constitutional amendments. Options B, C, and D represent incorrect interpretations or procedures.

Answer

B. Parliament's power to amend the Constitution is absolute and beyond the purview of judicial review, as it represents the will of the people.

Answer

C. Any constitutional amendment requires ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures, irrespective of its nature, for it to be valid.

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D. Parliament can only amend the Constitution after obtaining a prior advisory opinion from the Supreme Court of India on the proposed amendment.

Question 6

Which of the following powers is uniquely vested in a High Court in India, distinguishing it from the Supreme Court, particularly regarding its direct administrative and judicial oversight over subordinate courts and tribunals?

Accepted Answer

B. The power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals throughout the territory for which it exercises jurisdiction, excluding those constituted by a law relating to the armed forces. — Article 227 of the Constitution grants High Courts the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals within their territorial jurisdiction, except military tribunals. This unique power involves both administrative and judicial oversight, allowing High Courts to call for returns, make general rules, and prescribe forms for regulating the practice and proceedings of such courts, a power not vested in the Supreme Court. While High Courts also have wide writ jurisdiction, the power of superintendence is distinct and exclusive to them in exercising direct oversight.

Answer

A. The power to issue writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo Warranto) for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for 'any other purpose'.

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C. The power to declare a law unconstitutional if it violates the basic structure of the Constitution, a power shared concurrently with the Supreme Court.

Answer

D. The power to transfer cases from one High Court to another High Court or from any court to itself when substantial questions of law are involved.

Question 7

Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the role and powers of the Prime Minister of India as per the Constitution?

Accepted Answer

C. The Prime Minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha but cannot dismiss individual ministers without the Council's recommendation. — The Prime Minister presides over Union Cabinet meetings and advises the President on key decisions, including the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. However, the PM cannot unilaterally dismiss ministers; such actions require Cabinet consensus. The PM is not directly elected but is the leader of the majority party/coalition in the Lok Sabha. Option A is incorrect because the PM is not directly elected by the people. Option B is incorrect as portfolio allocation/reshuffling is done with the President's approval. Option D is incorrect because the PM does not have veto powers over Cabinet decisions.

Answer

A. The Prime Minister is directly elected by the people and holds the post for a fixed tenure of 5 years.

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B. The Prime Minister allocates and reshuffles portfolios among the Council of Ministers without the President's approval.

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D. The Prime Minister presides over the meetings of the Union Cabinet and can veto decisions of the Council of Ministers.

Question 8

In the context of the Council of Ministers in India, which of the following scenarios BEST illustrates collective responsibility?

Accepted Answer

B. A minister resigns after the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the government, even though the minister's portfolio was unrelated to the issue. — Collective responsibility means the entire Council of Ministers is accountable to Parliament for all decisions and policies. If the government loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, all ministers must resign, regardless of individual portfolios. Option A describes individual dissent, not collective responsibility. Option C describes internal Cabinet dynamics, not collective responsibility. Option D reflects a conflict between the PM and a minister, not collective responsibility.

Answer

A. A minister publicly criticizes a policy decision of the Prime Minister but later withdraws the statement under pressure.

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C. The Council of Ministers collectively decides to support a bill introduced by a junior minister, despite opposition from senior colleagues.

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D. The Prime Minister asks a minister to resign due to a corruption allegation, but the minister refuses, citing lack of evidence.

Question 9

Under which constitutional provision does the Parliament have the power to legislate on a matter in the State List during a National Emergency?

Accepted Answer

B. Article 250 (Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List if a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation) — Article 250 empowers Parliament to legislate on State List subjects during a National Emergency, as the emergency justifies overriding the State's legislative powers. Article 249 applies to matters of national interest but not during emergencies, while Article 252 requires State consent and Article 253 pertains to international agreements.

Answer

A. Article 249 (Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest)

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C. Article 252 (Power of Parliament to legislate for two or more States by consent and adoption of such legislation by any other State)

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D. Article 253 (Legislation for giving effect to international agreements)

Question 10

Which of the following is a mandatory function of the Inter-State Council as per the Constitution of India?

Accepted Answer

A. Investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the States or the Union and one or more States have a common interest — The Inter-State Council is mandated to investigate and discuss subjects of common interest among States or between the Union and States (Article 263). It does not arbitrate disputes (reserved for courts) or adjudicate financial allocations (handled by Finance Commission). Formation of new States is under Article 3, not the Council's purview.

Answer

B. Arbitrating disputes between States on water-sharing agreements

Answer

C. Recommending the formation of new States or alteration of State boundaries

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D. Adjudicating disputes between the Union and the States regarding financial allocations

Question 11

Which of the following statements about the Election Commission of India is NOT correct?

Accepted Answer

C. The term of office of the Election Commissioners is fixed for 6 years or until they attain the age of 65, whichever is earlier. — Option C is incorrect because the term of office for Election Commissioners is 6 years or up to the age of 65, whichever is earlier, but there is no fixed term like 6 years alone. The removal process for Election Commissioners (other than the Chief) is simpler and does not require impeachment.

Answer

A. The Election Commission is a constitutional body under Article 324 of the Constitution.

Answer

B. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.

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D. The Election Commission can be removed from office only through a process of impeachment similar to that of the Judges of the Supreme Court.

Question 12

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India holds a pivotal role in ensuring financial accountability. Which of the following is NOT a function of the CAG as per the Constitution?

Accepted Answer

C. Advising the President on the appointment of the Chief Vigilance Commissioner. — Option C is incorrect because the CAG does not advise the President on the appointment of the Chief Vigilance Commissioner. That function is handled by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC). The CAG's role is limited to auditing and reporting on financial matters as per Articles 148-151 of the Constitution.

Answer

A. Conducting audits of the accounts of the Union and State Governments.

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B. Auditing the receipts and expenditure of bodies and authorities substantially financed by the Government.

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D. Reporting on the efficiency of the use of resources in the implementation of government programmes.

Question 13

Which of the following Constitutional Amendments introduced the Anti-Defection provisions in the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

Accepted Answer

B. 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 — The 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 introduced the Anti-Defection provisions in the Tenth Schedule to address the menace of political defections. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 dealt with fundamental rights and the judiciary, the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 focused on Panchayati Raj institutions, and the 91st Amendment Act, 2003 strengthened provisions against defection by increasing the disqualification threshold.

Answer

A. 44th Amendment Act, 1978

Answer

C. 73rd Amendment Act, 1992

Answer

D. 91st Amendment Act, 2003

Question 14

The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 extended the reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. What was the key change introduced by this amendment?

Accepted Answer

B. Removed the reservation for Anglo-Indians — The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 removed the reservation for Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, while extending the reservation for SCs and STs by another 10 years (from 70 to 80 years). It did not introduce any changes to the Rajya Sabha or increase reservation percentages.

Answer

A. Increased the reservation period from 70 to 80 years

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C. Extended reservation to the Rajya Sabha

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D. Increased the reservation percentage from 15% to 20%

Question 15

Which of the following was a significant feature of the Mauryan administration under Ashoka that distinguished it from earlier Indian kingdoms?

Accepted Answer

A. A centralized bureaucracy with provincial governors (Kumaras) directly appointed by the king — The Mauryan administration under Ashoka is notable for its centralized bureaucracy, where provincial governors called Kumaras were directly appointed by the king to oversee administration and enforce policies. Option B is incorrect as village headmen existed but were not the primary tax collectors; taxes were managed by officers like Samahartas. Option C is incorrect because legal uniformity was not enforced uniformly across all provinces. Option D is incorrect as there is no evidence of a merit-based civil service system resembling the Chinese mandarin system in Mauryan administration.

Answer

B. The practice of appointing village headmen (Gramikas) to collect taxes from peasants

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C. The establishment of a uniform legal code enforced by royal judges across all provinces

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D. The introduction of a merit-based civil service system similar to the Chinese mandarin system

Question 16

The Gupta Empire is often referred to as the 'Golden Age' of ancient India. Which of the following was NOT a reason for this characterization?

Accepted Answer

B. The establishment of a decentralized feudal system where local rulers had significant autonomy — The Gupta Empire is known as the 'Golden Age' due to its advancements in literature, science, mathematics, and coinage, but it was not a decentralized feudal system. In fact, the Gupta administration was relatively centralized, with local rulers acting as vassals rather than autonomous feudal lords. Option A is correct as the period saw the composition of works like Kalidasa's 'Shakuntala'. Option C is correct as the Gupta coinage system was well-developed and facilitated trade. Option D is correct as the concept of zero was formalized during this period.

Answer

A. The flourishing of Sanskrit literature and the development of classical forms like the epic and drama

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C. The introduction of a standardized coinage system that facilitated trade and commerce

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D. The significant advances in mathematics, including the invention of the concept of zero

Question 17

Which of the following statements about the Mauryan and Gupta Empires' administrative systems is correct?

Accepted Answer

B. The Mauryan Empire had a more centralized administration compared to the Gupta Empire — The Mauryan administration under Ashoka was more centralized, with provincial governors (Kumaras) directly appointed by the king, whereas the Gupta Empire relied more on feudal vassals and local rulers. Option A is incorrect as the Mauryan Empire did not rely on hereditary local rulers. Option C is incorrect because standing armies were a feature of both empires, not introduced by the Guptas. Option D is incorrect as legal codes were not uniformly enforced across all regions in either empire.

Answer

A. Both empires relied heavily on a system of hereditary local rulers to govern provinces

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C. The Gupta Empire introduced the concept of a standing army to maintain internal security

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D. Both empires used a standardized legal code enforced uniformly across all regions

Question 18

Which Mughal emperor introduced the Mansabdari system in his administration, and what was its primary purpose?

Accepted Answer

A. Akbar; to maintain a centralized military and revenue administration — Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system to maintain a centralized military and revenue administration by classifying nobles into ranks (mansabs) based on military and administrative capabilities. The system ensured loyalty and efficient resource allocation, unlike Babur's or Humayun's less structured approaches.

Answer

B. Babur; to distribute land directly to peasants

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B. Humayun; to establish a feudal hierarchy among nobles

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C. Aurangzeb; to consolidate military control over the Deccan

Question 19

The Battle of Panipat (1526) marked the beginning of Mughal rule in India. Which Sultanate did Babur defeat in this battle?

Accepted Answer

A. Lodi Dynasty of Delhi — Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi, the last ruler of the Delhi Sultanate's Lodi Dynasty, at the Battle of Panipat (1526). This victory established Mughal dominance over North India, ending the Delhi Sultanate's fragmented rule.

Answer

B. Bahmani Sultanate of the Deccan

Answer

C. Sharqi Sultanate of Jaunpur

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D. Gujarat Sultanate

Question 20

Which Mughal emperor's reign is considered the 'Golden Age' of Mughal architecture, and which monument is emblematic of this period?

Accepted Answer

A. Shah Jahan; Taj Mahal — Shah Jahan's reign (1628–1658) is known as the 'Golden Age' of Mughal architecture due to the construction of iconic structures like the Taj Mahal. While Akbar and Jahangir built significant monuments, Shah Jahan's emphasis on white marble and symmetry defined this period.

Answer

B. Akbar; Buland Darwaza

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C. Jahangir; Shalimar Bagh

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D. Aurangzeb; Badshahi Mosque

Question 21

Which of the following was a direct consequence of the Government of India Act, 1935 in the context of British rule in India?

Accepted Answer

A. Introduction of provincial autonomy with limited self-governance in provinces — The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced provincial autonomy, allowing limited self-governance in provinces under British rule. Option B is incorrect as Dominion Status was not granted immediately; Option C is wrong because the ICS was not abolished; Option D is incorrect as the federal court was established under the same act but did not have such broad powers.

Answer

B. Granting of Dominion Status to India with immediate effect

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C. Abolition of the Indian Civil Service (ICS) and its replacement with local administrative bodies

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D. Establishment of a federal court with powers to review constitutional matters

Question 22

The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22) was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in response to which of the following events?

Accepted Answer

A. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and the enactment of the Rowlatt Acts — The Non-Cooperation Movement was initiated in response to the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre and the oppressive Rowlatt Acts, which had outraged Indians. Option B is incorrect as the Simon Commission's report came later; Option C is wrong as the Chauri Chaura incident led to the movement's withdrawal; Option D is incorrect as the Cripps Mission occurred during World War II.

Answer

B. The Simon Commission's report recommending further constitutional reforms

Answer

C. The Chauri Chaura incident, where a police station was set ablaze by protesters

Answer

D. The failure of the Cripps Mission to secure India's full independence

Question 23

Which of the following was a direct consequence of the 'Quit India Movement' (1942) launched by the Indian National Congress?

Accepted Answer

C. Large-scale arrests of Congress leaders and suppression of the movement — The Quit India Movement resulted in the arrest of key Congress leaders like Gandhi and Nehru, leading to a temporary suppression of the movement. The British did not withdraw immediately, nor was Dominion Status granted at that time. The Interim Government was formed later, in 1946, under the Cabinet Mission Plan.

Answer

A. Immediate British withdrawal from India

Answer

B. Formation of the Interim Government under the Cabinet Mission Plan

Answer

D. Granting of Dominion Status to India in 1942

Question 24

The 'Dadabhai Naoroji Lectures' on poverty in India, delivered in 1901, highlighted which economic critique of British rule?

Accepted Answer

A. The drain of wealth from India to Britain through colonial economic policies — Dadabhai Naoroji's lectures on poverty emphasized the 'drain of wealth' theory, arguing that India's resources were systematically siphoned off to Britain through trade, taxes, and administrative costs, impoverishing the Indian economy. While taxation and industrialization were issues, the primary focus of his critique was the economic drain.

Answer

B. The failure of the British to industrialize India

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C. The excessive taxation imposed by the British on Indian farmers

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D. The lack of education infrastructure under British administration

Question 25

Which socio-religious reform movement in 19th-century Kerala was founded by Sri Narayana Guru and aimed at social equality by promoting temple entry for Dalits and challenging caste discrimination?

Accepted Answer

D. Sri Narayana Dharma Paripalana (SNDP) Yogam — The SNDP Yogam, founded by Sri Narayana Guru, was a key reform movement in Kerala that advocated for the rights of lower castes, including temple entry and education. Samathwa Samajam and Ayyavazhi Movement were earlier movements, while Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangham was closely associated with Ayyankali, not Narayana Guru.

Answer

A. Samathwa Samajam

Answer

B. Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangham

Answer

C. Vaikunta Swamikal’s Ayyavazhi Movement

Kerala PSC KAS Prelim Deep Mock 005