Plus 2 Lecturer Mixed Practice Test #586

Question 1

Synonym of WITHER:

Accepted Answer

Shrivel — Dry up.

Answer

Bloom

Answer

Grow

Answer

Expand

Question 2

Synonym of INNOCUOUS:

Accepted Answer

Harmless — Not harmful.

Answer

Harmful

Answer

Dangerous

Answer

Bad

Question 3

A patient is taking a medication that requires monitoring of liver function tests (LFTs). What is the primary reason for this monitoring?

Accepted Answer

B. To detect potential hepatotoxicity — The primary reason for monitoring LFTs in this patient is to detect potential hepatotoxicity, as some medications can cause liver damage. Options A, C, and D are not the primary reasons for LFT monitoring in this context.

Answer

A. To assess the medication's efficacy

Answer

C. To adjust the medication dose

Answer

D. To monitor for signs of overdose

Question 4

G. Aravindan was a renowned:‌​‍

Accepted Answer

Filmmaker — Parallel cinema director.

Answer

Novelist

Answer

Poet

Answer

Politician

Question 5

Hydra typically reproduces by:‌​‍

Accepted Answer

Budding — Hydra produces buds that detach and grow into new individuals.‌​‍

Answer

Binary fission

Answer

Fragmentation

Answer

Spore formation

Question 6

A patient refuses to acknowledge a recent cancer diagnosis, claiming the doctor made a mistake. Which defense mechanism is being demonstrated?

Accepted Answer

A. Denial — Denial is the refusal to accept an unpleasant reality, as seen in the patient's dismissal of the diagnosis. Suppression is consciously avoiding a thought, displacement redirects feelings to another target, and identification involves modeling behavior after someone admired.

Answer

B. Suppression

Answer

C. Displacement

Answer

D. Identification

Question 7

The Kerala Land Reforms (Amendment) Act of 1969 is often considered the most radical and effective piece of legislation in Kerala's land reform history. What was its most distinguishing and impactful provision compared to the earlier agrarian laws of 1957-1963?

Accepted Answer

B. It legally abolished all remaining landlord-tenant relationships, granting full ownership rights to cultivating tenants and kudikidappukars (hutment dwellers). — The 1969 Amendment Act was revolutionary because it directly conferred ownership rights upon the cultivating tenants and kudikidappukars, effectively dismantling the centuries-old landlord-tenant system. Earlier acts (1957, 1963) had provisions for tenancy reform but faced legal challenges and implementation hurdles, leaving significant scope for landlordism. Options A, C, and D represent other aspects of agrarian reform or were not the primary distinguishing features of the 1969 amendment.

Answer

A. It introduced a progressive tax system on agricultural income, independent of land ownership.

Answer

C. It mandated the consolidation of fragmented landholdings to promote modern agricultural practices and efficiency.

Answer

D. It primarily focused on the acquisition of surplus land from large plantation owners for redistribution to landless farmers.

Question 8

Manu Bhaker sport:‌​‍

Accepted Answer

Shooting — Pistol shooting. 2 bronzes at Paris 2024.‌​‍

Answer

Boxing

Answer

Archery

Answer

Wrestling

Question 9

According to Piaget's theory, during adolescence, individuals typically transition from concrete operational thinking to which stage of cognitive development?

Accepted Answer

C. Formal operational stage — The formal operational stage (Piaget) is characterized by abstract thinking, hypothetical reasoning, and systematic problem-solving, which are hallmarks of adolescent cognitive development. The sensorimotor and preoperational stages precede this, while postformal operational is not part of Piaget's original theory.

Answer

A. Sensorimotor stage

Answer

B. Preoperational stage

Answer

D. Postformal operational stage

Question 10

Despite its immense popularity in several Commonwealth nations, cricket has only made sporadic appearances in the Olympic Games, with efforts ongoing for its re-inclusion. Considering the demands of a multi-sport event, which format of cricket is most widely discussed for potential Olympic inclusion, and why?

Accepted Answer

C. Twenty20 (T20) cricket, owing to its shorter duration, fast-paced action, and appeal to a broader global audience. — Twenty20 (T20) cricket is the most widely discussed format for Olympic inclusion because its shorter duration (around 3 hours per match) fits well within the tight scheduling constraints of a multi-sport event. Its fast-paced, high-scoring nature is also more appealing to a diverse global audience and aligns with the Olympic desire for dynamic, accessible sports. Test and ODI formats are too lengthy for the Olympics, and 'The Hundred' is a relatively new, regionally specific format, less likely for global adoption at this stage.

Answer

A. Test Cricket, due to its historical significance and comprehensive display of skill.

Answer

B. One-Day Internationals (ODIs), offering a balanced duration and strategic depth.

Answer

D. The Hundred, as a newer, even shorter format designed for explosive entertainment.

Plus 2 Lecturer Mixed Practice Test #586