Kerala PSC Pharmacist Gr II Mock 011

Q1.Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for using a desiccant in the packaging of effervescent tablets?

A. A. To prevent microbial contamination B. B. To absorb moisture and maintain stability C. C. To enhance the dissolution rate of the tablet D. D. To improve the tablet's hardness

Q2.Which type of sterile product packaging is MOST suitable for a heat-sensitive injectable drug that requires protection from moisture?

A. A. Glass ampoules B. B. Plastic syringes C. C. Blow-fill-seal containers D. D. Aluminum foil blister packs

Q3.What is the MAIN advantage of using hard gelatin capsules over compressed tablets for a drug that is sensitive to hydrolysis?

A. A. Hard gelatin capsules dissolve faster in the stomach B. B. Hard gelatin capsules provide better protection from moisture C. C. Hard gelatin capsules are more cost-effective D. D. Hard gelatin capsules allow for easier swallowing

Q4.Which sterilization method is CONTRAINDICATED for a parenteral solution containing a heat-sensitive protein drug?

A. A. Dry heat sterilization B. B. Gamma irradiation C. C. Autoclaving D. D. Filtration sterilization

Q5.What is the PRIMARY purpose of using a coating on tablets?

A. A. To increase the drug's bioavailability B. B. To protect the drug from environmental factors and mask taste C. C. To reduce the manufacturing cost D. D. To enhance the drug's solubility

Q6.Which of the following is a COMMON cause of chemical instability in liquid oral dosage forms?

A. A. Exposure to light B. B. Hydrolysis C. C. Microbial contamination D. D. Poor packaging material

Q7.Which packaging material is MOST suitable for a moisture-sensitive drug in tropical climates?

A. A. Low-density polyethylene (LDPE) B. B. Aluminum foil C. C. Glass D. D. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

Q8.What is the PRIMARY reason for using a lyophilization process in the preparation of parenteral drugs?

A. A. To increase the drug's solubility B. B. To enhance the drug's stability and prolong shelf life C. C. To reduce the cost of manufacturing D. D. To improve the drug's bioavailability

Q9.Which of the following stability tests is conducted to assess the long-term stability of a drug product?

A. A. Accelerated stability testing B. B. Stress testing C. C. Real-time stability testing D. D. Photostability testing

Q10.Which type of packaging is MOST effective in protecting a drug from oxidation?

A. A. Amber glass bottles B. B. Clear plastic containers C. C. Cardboard boxes D. D. Aluminum blister packs

Q11.Which of the following functional groups is primarily responsible for the antipyretic and analgesic properties of paracetamol?

A. A. Hydroxyl group B. B. Amide group C. C. Acetamide group D. D. Methyl group

Q12.In the synthesis of aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid), which of the following reagents is used for the acetylation step?

A. A. Acetic anhydride B. B. Acetyl chloride C. C. Ethanol D. D. Sodium hydroxide

Q13.Which of the following is a characteristic feature of penicillin antibiotics that makes them effective against bacterial infections?

A. A. Presence of a beta-lactam ring B. B. High lipophilicity C. C. Aromatic ring system D. D. Long plasma half-life

Q14.What is the primary role of citric acid in effervescent tablets?

A. A. To act as a disintegrant B. B. To provide effervescence and improve solubility C. C. To enhance drug stability D. D. To act as a binder

Q15.Which of the following ions is essential for the activation of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase?

A. A. Magnesium ion (Mg²⁺) B. B. Zinc ion (Zn²⁺) C. C. Calcium ion (Ca²⁺) D. D. Iron ion (Fe²⁺)

Q16.The drug metformin primarily exerts its hypoglycemic effect by which of the following mechanisms?

A. A. Stimulating insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells B. B. Inhibiting gluconeogenesis in the liver C. C. Increasing glucose uptake in peripheral tissues D. D. Inhibiting alpha-glucosidase enzymes

Q17.Which of the following compounds is used as a preservative in parenteral formulations due to its broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity?

A. A. Sodium benzoate B. B. Benzalkonium chloride C. C. Phenol D. D. Chlorocresol

Q18.The presence of which functional group in a drug molecule typically increases its water solubility?

A. A. Hydroxyl group (-OH) B. B. Methyl group (-CH3) C. C. Halogen group (-Cl, -Br) D. D. Nitro group (-NO2)

Q19.Which of the following is the primary site of action for the antacid magnesium hydroxide?

A. A. Stomach lining B. B. Small intestine C. C. Esophagus D. D. Pancreas

Q20.The drug warfarin acts as an anticoagulant primarily by inhibiting which of the following enzymes?

A. A. Thrombin B. B. Factor Xa C. C. Vitamin K epoxide reductase D. D. Platelet cyclooxygenase

Q21.Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause QT prolongation and torsades de pointes when taken with a CYP3A4 inhibitor like ketoconazole?

A. A. Metformin B. B. Digoxin C. C. Clarithromycin D. D. Warfarin

Q22.A patient on chronic lithium therapy develops tremors, ataxia, and confusion. Which of the following drugs is most likely to have precipitated this toxicity?

A. A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. B. Paracetamol C. C. Ondansetron D. D. Ranitidine

Q23.Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause a disulfiram-like reaction when consumed with alcohol?

A. A. Ciprofloxacin B. B. Metronidazole C. C. Amoxicillin D. D. Doxycycline

Q24.A patient with severe asthma exacerbation is prescribed high-dose theophylline. Which of the following drugs may significantly increase theophylline levels and risk of toxicity?

A. A. Rifampicin B. B. Phenytoin C. C. Ciprofloxacin D. D. Omeprazole

Q25.Which of the following is a common adverse effect of ACE inhibitors like enalapril?

A. A. Hyperkalemia B. B. Hypokalemia C. C. Hypoglycemia D. D. Hypercalcemia

Q26.A patient on warfarin therapy develops severe bleeding. Which of the following drugs is most likely to have precipitated this bleeding?

A. A. Vitamin K B. B. Aspirin C. C. Calcium carbonate D. D. Magnesium hydroxide

Q27.Which of the following drugs is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used primarily for depression and anxiety disorders?

A. A. Tramadol B. B. Fluoxetine C. C. Haloperidol D. D. Lorazepam

Q28.A patient on chronic amiodarone therapy is at risk for which of the following adverse effects due to its iodine content?

A. A. Hypothyroidism B. B. Hyperthyroidism C. C. Hyperparathyroidism D. D. Hypoparathyroidism

Q29.Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause ototoxicity when combined with loop diuretics like furosemide?

A. A. Gentamicin B. B. Metformin C. C. Ibuprofen D. D. Ranitidine

Q30.A patient with hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is prescribed tamsulosin. Which of the following adverse effects is most likely?

A. A. Bradycardia B. B. Orthostatic hypotension C. C. Hyperglycemia D. D. Hypokalemia

Q31.Which of the following crude drugs is primarily used as a cardiotonic and contains cardiac glycosides?

A. A. Rauwolfia serpentina B. B. Digitalis purpurea C. C. Cinchona officinalis D. D. Aloe barbadensis

Q32.The presence of which chemical test confirms the presence of alkaloids in a crude drug?

A. A. Molisch test B. B. Mayer's test C. C. Fehling's test D. D. Benedict's test

Q33.Which of the following is NOT a glycoside?

A. A. Salicin B. B. Digoxin C. C. Caffeine D. D. Sennoside

Q34.Which crude drug is commonly used in Ayurveda for its adaptogenic properties and contains withanolides?

A. A. Ashwagandha (Withania somnifera) B. B. Tulsi (Ocimum sanctum) C. C. Neem (Azadirachta indica) D. D. Turmeric (Curcuma longa)

Q35.Which of the following drugs is derived from the latex of a plant and used as a purgative?

A. A. Opium B. B. Colchicine C. C. Aloin D. D. Quinine

Q36.Which glycoside is responsible for the sweet taste of Glycyrrhiza glabra (Licorice)?

A. A. Glycyrrhizin B. B. Rutin C. C. Hesperidin D. D. Quercetin

Q37.Which of the following alkaloids is used as a skeletal muscle relaxant in anesthesia?

A. A. Morphine B. B. Atropine C. C. Tubocurarine D. D. Quinine

Q38.Which part of the plant is used in the preparation of 'Ipecac' syrup, a drug used to induce vomiting?

A. A. Root B. B. Bark C. C. Leaf D. D. Seed

Q39.Which of the following drugs is known to contain both alkaloids and essential oils, making it useful in treating respiratory disorders?

A. A. Atropa belladonna B. B. Eucalyptus globulus C. C. Cassia angustifolia D. D. Papaver somniferum

Q40.Which glycoside is responsible for the laxative effect of senna leaves?

A. A. Aloe-emodin B. B. Sennoside C. C. Diosgenin D. D. Berberine

Q41.Which of the following is the most appropriate method for distributing controlled substances (Schedule H drugs) in a hospital ward?

A. A. Issuing the entire stock of the drug for the ward at once to the nurse-in-charge B. B. Using a floor stock system where ward nurses can access the drug as needed C. C. Implementing a unit-dose dispensing system with strict documentation and periodic audits D. D. Allowing ward pharmacists to dispense controlled substances directly to patients without physician oversight

Q42.In an ambulatory care pharmacy (OPD pharmacy), which of the following practices is essential for ensuring medication adherence in chronic disease patients?

A. A. Providing large stock bottles for patients to take home B. B. Conducting medication therapy management (MTM) sessions with pharmacists C. C. Dispensing drugs without patient counseling to save time D. D. Allowing patients to self-select medications from a common shelf

Q43.Which of the following is a key advantage of using an automated dispensing cabinet (ADC) in a hospital setting?

A. A. Reducing the need for pharmacy staff during night shifts B. B. Eliminating the requirement for physician prescriptions C. C. Minimizing medication errors by limiting access to authorized personnel D. D. Allowing patients to access their medications directly

Q44.A patient in the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) requires a continuous infusion of a vasopressor. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of drug distribution?

A. A. Floor stock system with a single large vial kept at bedside B. B. Unit-dose syringe pump prepared by the ICU pharmacist with strict aseptic technique C. C. Bulk stock in the ICU medication room for nurses to draw from as needed D. D. Oral administration of the drug as it is more convenient for the patient

Q45.Which of the following is a primary responsibility of a clinical pharmacist in an IPD (In-Patient Department) pharmacy?

A. A. Prescribing medications based on patient symptoms B. B. Monitoring drug therapy and providing recommendations to physicians C. C. Administering medications directly to patients without supervision D. D. Managing the hospital’s drug procurement and inventory alone

Q46.In a sterile compounding area, which of the following is the most critical step to prevent particulate contamination?

A. A. Using non-sterile gloves and gowns B. B. Performing hand hygiene with soap and water only C. C. Using a biological safety cabinet (BSC) or laminar airflow workbench (LAFW) D. D. Compounding medications in a well-ventilated room without HEPA filtration

Q47.A patient is prescribed an intravenous antibiotic that must be administered every 6 hours. Which of the following is the most appropriate drug distribution system for this medication in a hospital ward?

A. A. Floor stock system with a single vial kept in the medication room B. B. Unit-dose dispensing with the antibiotic prepared by the central pharmacy and labeled for each dose C. C. Allowing nurses to withdraw doses from a bulk vial as needed D. D. Dispensing the entire course of antibiotics to the patient’s caregiver

Q48.Which of the following is a key feature of a 'drug basket' system used in hospital wards?

A. A. A basket containing all medications for a single patient, prepared by the ward nurse B. B. A standardized set of emergency drugs kept for immediate use in critical situations C. C. A system where patients carry their medications in a basket during ward rounds D. D. A bulk storage system for controlled substances in the pharmacy

Q49.In a hospital pharmacy, which of the following is the most effective way to reduce medication errors during the dispensing process?

A. A. Relying solely on bar-code scanning for medication verification B. B. Implementing a double-check system where two pharmacists verify each prescription C. C. Allowing pharmacy technicians to dispense medications without supervision D. D. Using handwritten labels for all dispensed medications

Q50.Which of the following is a critical consideration when preparing sterile ophthalmic preparations in a hospital pharmacy?

A. A. Using multi-dose vials for convenience to reduce costs B. B. Ensuring the preparation is isotonic and free from particulate matter C. C. Storing the preparation at room temperature for extended shelf life D. D. Using non-sterile equipment to avoid glass contamination

Q51.Under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, which authority is empowered to grant licenses for the cultivation of opium?

A. A. State Government B. B. Central Government C. C. Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) D. D. State Pharmacy Council

Q52.Which schedule under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, contains drugs that are exempt from the provisions of section 3 (prohibition of manufacture and sale of certain drugs and cosmetics) in certain cases?

A. A. Schedule C B. B. Schedule X C. C. Schedule Y D. D. Schedule O

Q53.As per the Pharmacy Act, 1948, which of the following is NOT a function of the State Pharmacy Council?

A. A. Registration of pharmacists B. B. Monitoring the sale of narcotic drugs C. C. Inspection of pharmacies D. D. Conducting examinations for pharmacists

Q54.Which of the following drugs is classified as a Schedule H drug under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act?

A. A. Paracetamol B. B. Metformin C. C. Morphine D. D. Amoxicillin

Q55.Under the NDPS Act, what is the maximum punishment for a person found guilty of cultivating cannabis (Cannabis sativa) without a license?

A. A. 10 years imprisonment and fine up to ₹1 lakh B. B. 5 years imprisonment and fine up to ₹20,000 C. C. 20 years rigorous imprisonment and fine up to ₹2 lakh D. D. Life imprisonment

Q56.Which of the following is a key objective of the Pharmacy Act, 1948?

A. A. To regulate the sale of narcotic drugs B. B. To ensure the quality of Ayurvedic medicines C. C. To regulate the profession of pharmacy and the practice of pharmacists D. D. To control the prices of essential drugs

Q57.As per the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, which schedule specifies the list of drugs that are required to be sold by retail only on prescription of a Registered Medical Practitioner?

A. A. Schedule C B. B. Schedule H C. C. Schedule X D. D. Schedule Y

Q58.Under the NDPS Act, which authority is responsible for the issue of licenses for the manufacture of psychotropic substances?

A. A. State Government B. B. Central Government C. C. State Pharmacy Council D. D. Drug Controller General of India (DCGI)

Q59.Which of the following is NOT a function of the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act?

A. A. Granting licenses for the manufacture of drugs B. B. Approving clinical trials of new drugs C. C. Regulating the sale of narcotic drugs D. D. Monitoring the quality of drugs in the market

Q60.As per the Pharmacy Act, 1948, which of the following is a requirement for the registration of a pharmacist?

A. A. Completion of a recognized pharmacy degree or diploma B. B. Passing an examination conducted by the State Pharmacy Council C. C. Both A and B D. D. Neither A nor B

Q61.Which of the following structures is primarily responsible for the exchange of gases between the blood and alveoli in the lungs?

A. A. Bronchi B. B. Bronchioles C. C. Alveolar sacs D. D. Trachea

Q62.A patient presents with symptoms of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath. Laboratory tests reveal a low hemoglobin level. Which of the following vitamins is most likely deficient?

A. A. Vitamin A B. B. Vitamin C C. C. Vitamin B12 D. D. Vitamin K

Q63.Which part of the nephron is primarily responsible for the reabsorption of water and concentration of urine?

A. A. Proximal convoluted tubule B. B. Loop of Henle C. C. Distal convoluted tubule D. D. Collecting duct

Q64.A pharmacist notices that a patient’s medication list includes both warfarin and a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Which of the following is the MOST likely clinical concern?

A. A. Increased risk of bleeding due to antibiotic-induced vitamin K deficiency B. B. Decreased effectiveness of warfarin due to enzyme induction by the antibiotic C. C. Drug-induced nephrotoxicity D. D. Increased risk of serotonin syndrome

Q65.Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?

A. A. Growth hormone B. B. Prolactin C. C. Oxytocin D. D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone

Q66.A patient with hypertension is advised to reduce sodium intake. Which of the following is the BEST explanation for this advice?

A. A. Sodium increases blood volume by promoting water retention, raising blood pressure B. B. Sodium directly causes vasoconstriction of blood vessels C. C. Sodium decreases the effectiveness of antihypertensive drugs D. D. Sodium inhibits the renin-angiotensin system

Q67.Which of the following is a primary function of the liver in drug metabolism?

A. A. Excretion of drugs unchanged in bile B. B. Biotransformation of drugs via cytochrome P450 enzymes C. C. Storage of drugs without modification D. D. Secretion of drugs into the bloodstream

Q68.A patient with Type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin. Which of the following is the MOST likely mechanism of action?

A. A. Stimulation of insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells B. B. Inhibition of hepatic gluconeogenesis and improvement of insulin sensitivity C. C. Direct activation of glucose uptake in muscle cells D. D. Blockade of glucose absorption in the small intestine

Q69.Which of the following is a key component of the body’s first-line defense against infections?

A. A. Antibodies produced by plasma cells B. B. Phagocytosis by neutrophils and macrophages C. C. Complement system activation D. D. Memory T-cell response

Q70.A pharmacist is counseling a patient on the importance of hand hygiene. Which of the following is the MOST effective method to prevent the spread of pathogens?

A. A. Using alcohol-based hand sanitizers only when soap and water are unavailable B. B. Washing hands with soap and water for at least 20 seconds C. C. Applying hand lotion after handwashing to prevent dryness D. D. Using gloves for all patient interactions

Q71.Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of maintaining an inventory control system in a drug store?

A. A. To reduce the cost of expired drugs by purchasing in bulk B. B. To ensure the availability of drugs without overstocking or understocking C. C. To increase profit margins by selling drugs at higher prices D. D. To comply with government regulations only during audits

Q72.A pharmacist notices that the expiry date of a commonly used antibiotic has passed. What is the FIRST step to be taken?

A. A. Sell the expired drugs at a discounted price to clear stock B. B. Segregate the expired drugs and return them to the supplier for credit C. C. Continue using the drug if it appears intact and no patients have complained D. D. Dispose of the expired drugs in the regular waste bin

Q73.Which financial document in a drug store provides a snapshot of assets, liabilities, and equity at a specific point in time?

A. A. Income Statement B. B. Cash Flow Statement C. C. Balance Sheet D. D. Statement of Retained Earnings

Q74.A customer requests a refill of a controlled substance without a valid prescription. How should the pharmacist respond?

A. A. Provide the medication if the customer has a history of purchasing the drug B. B. Refuse to dispense and explain the legal requirements for controlled substances C. C. Ask the customer to bring a prescription from a different doctor next time D. D. Sell half the quantity now and ask for a prescription later

Q75.Which of the following is a key responsibility of a pharmacist in drug store management?

A. A. Designing the layout of the store to maximize sales of non-pharmaceutical items B. B. Ensuring proper storage conditions for drugs to maintain their potency and safety C. C. Focusing solely on dispensing drugs and ignoring customer service D. D. Delegating all inventory management tasks to untrained staff

Q76.A drug store is running low on a fast-moving antihypertensive medication. What is the BEST immediate action?

A. A. Place an emergency order to restock the medication quickly B. B. Substitute with a similar but less expensive drug without informing the doctor C. C. Inform the regular supplier to expedite delivery within the usual lead time D. D. Temporarily discontinue selling the medication to other customers

Q77.Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good drug store layout?

A. A. Easy access for disabled customers B. B. Clear signage for different sections and drugs C. C. Crowded aisles to maximize shelf space D. D. Separate areas for prescription and over-the-counter drugs

Q78.A pharmacist observes that the demand for a particular drug is increasing rapidly. What is the MOST appropriate action to take?

A. A. Increase the selling price to reduce demand B. B. Stock up immediately and order in bulk to prevent shortages C. C. Analyze usage patterns and adjust inventory levels accordingly D. D. Stop ordering the drug to force customers to switch to alternatives

Q79.Which document is used to record the receipt of drugs from a supplier in a drug store?

A. A. Purchase Order B. B. Goods Receipt Note (GRN) C. C. Invoice D. D. Stock Register

Q80.What is the PRIMARY advantage of using a computerized inventory management system in a drug store?

A. A. It eliminates the need for physical stock verification B. B. It provides real-time tracking of stock levels and expiry dates C. C. It automatically adjusts drug prices to maximize profits D. D. It reduces the need for trained staff in the store

Q81.Which of the following is the primary site for the synthesis of urea in the human body?

A. A. Liver B. B. Kidneys C. C. Small intestine D. D. Pancreas

Q82.A patient presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia after taking insulin. Which of the following biochemical processes is most likely impaired in this scenario?

A. A. Glycogenolysis in the liver B. B. Gluconeogenesis in the kidneys C. C. Lipolysis in adipose tissue D. D. Protein catabolism in muscles

Q83.Which of the following enzymes is commonly elevated in serum following a myocardial infarction?

A. A. Alkaline phosphatase B. B. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) C. C. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) D. D. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

Q84.A 50-year-old male with chronic alcoholism presents with confusion and ataxia. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

A. A. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) B. B. Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) C. C. Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) D. D. Vitamin D (Cholecalciferol)

Q85.Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

A. A. Hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis, ketonuria B. B. Hypoglycemia, respiratory alkalosis, proteinuria C. C. Hypercalcemia, metabolic alkalosis, glycosuria D. D. Hypokalemia, respiratory acidosis, hematuria

Q86.A patient with jaundice has elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A. A. Biliary obstruction B. B. Hemolytic anemia C. C. Hepatitis D. D. Gilbert's syndrome

Q87.Which of the following is the primary buffer system in blood plasma?

A. A. Bicarbonate-carbonic acid system B. B. Phosphate buffer system C. C. Protein buffer system D. D. Hemoglobin buffer system

Q88.A patient with chronic kidney disease is likely to have an elevated level of which of the following serum markers?

A. A. Albumin B. B. Creatinine C. C. Sodium D. D. Potassium

Q89.Which of the following is the most common cause of metabolic alkalosis?

A. A. Diarrhea B. B. Vomiting C. C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) D. D. Renal failure

Q90.A patient with a history of liver cirrhosis presents with ascites and edema. Which of the following biochemical imbalances is most likely contributing to fluid retention?

A. A. Hyperalbuminemia B. B. Hypoalbuminemia C. C. Hyperkalemia D. D. Hypocalcemia

Q91.Which Indian pharmacist received the prestigious 'Dr. B. C. Roy Award' in the year 2020 for her exceptional contributions to the field of pharmacy and public health?

A. A. Dr. M. R. Pillai B. B. Dr. T. S. Tirumurti C. C. Dr. V. P. Joy D. D. Dr. M. S. Valiathan

Q92.The 'Padma Vibhushan' award, one of India's highest civilian honors, was conferred in 2021 to which renowned pharmacologist for his pioneering work in drug development and clinical pharmacology?

A. A. Dr. Yusuf Hamied B. B. Dr. K. S. Manilal C. C. Dr. Soumya Swaminathan D. D. Dr. Balram Bhargava

Q93.Which of the following is a key component of the 'Aardram' mission launched by the Government of Kerala to improve healthcare services?

A. A. Construction of new medical colleges in every district B. B. Upgrading of government hospitals to 'Aardram' model with enhanced facilities C. C. Provision of free medical insurance to all Keralites D. D. Mandatory private sector participation in rural healthcare

Q94.Under the 'Karma Sree' scheme, which category of healthcare workers is primarily targeted for skill upgradation and employment support in Kerala?

A. A. Doctors serving in government hospitals B. B. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians in government and private sectors C. C. Nurses working in urban health centers D. D. ASHA workers in rural areas

Q95.Which of the following is a key objective of the National Health Policy (NHP) 2017 in India?

A. A. To achieve a doctor-population ratio of 1:1000 by 2025 B. B. To reduce infant mortality rate to 20 per 1000 live births by 2025 C. C. To allocate 5% of GDP to the health sector by 2025 D. D. To ensure availability of 2 beds per 1000 population in all districts by 2025

Q96.Under the National Health Policy 2017, which initiative is prioritized to address the rising burden of non-communicable diseases (NCDs)?

A. A. Expansion of Ayushman Bharat to cover all NCDs B. B. Establishment of NCD clinics in every primary health center C. C. Integration of NCD screening and management in the Ayushman Bharat Health and Wellness Centres D. D. Mandatory NCD insurance for all citizens above 30 years

Q97.Which authority is responsible for granting manufacturing licenses for allopathic drugs in India under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940?

A. A. State Drug Control Department B. B. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) C. C. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare D. D. Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission

Q98.Under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances (NDPS) Act, 1985, which of the following is NOT a valid reason for the import of a narcotic drug into India?

A. A. Medical or scientific purposes B. B. Industrial use in manufacturing C. C. Re-export to a third country D. D. Personal consumption by an individual traveler

Q99.Which initiative was recently launched in Kerala to address the rising incidence of non-communicable diseases (NCDs) like diabetes and hypertension among the population?

A. A. Arogya Karnataka B. B. K-DAP (Kerala Disease Alleviation Programme) C. C. Nava Kerala Mission D. D. Subiksha Keralam

Kerala PSC Pharmacist Gr II Mock 011